Sunday, February 7, 2010

Mnemonics Eeasy one

These are the mnemonics from my memory notebook of nursing

MASLOW'S HIERCHY OF BASIC HUMAN NEEDS
  • i feel on top of the world= SELF ACTUALIZATION
  • I like me = self esteem
  • i feel all warm and squishy.=love and belongings
  • i feel safe=security and safety
  • i'm warm ,dry, fed and rested=psysiological needs
STEPS IN THE NURSING PROCESS
  • A DELICIOUS PIE
  • ASESSMENT
  • DIAGNOSIS
  • PLANNING
  • IMPLEMENTATION
  • EVALUATION
CHARTING BODY FLUIDS
  • C COLOR
  • O ODOR
  • A AMOUNT
  • C CONSISTENCY
  • H HOW THE CLIENT IS TOLERATING IT
DEHISCENCE
Sepration or splitting open layers of surgical wound.
EVISCERATION
extrusion of viscera or intestinal through a surgical wound.

ATROPINE OVERDOSE
HOT AS A HARE MEANS INCREASED TEMPERATURE
MAD AS HATTER MEANS CONFUSION AND DELIRIUM
RED AS BEET MEANS FLUSHED FACE
DRY AS A BONE MEANS DECREASED SECREATIONS ,THRISTY.

HEPARIN + PTT=10 LETTERS
COUMADIN+PT=10 LETTERS

INFLAMMATION SIGNS
H HEAT
I INDURATION
P PAIN
E EDEMA
R REDNESS

CANCER SIGNS

C COMFORT
A ALTERED BODY IMAGE
N NUTRITION
C CHEMOTHERAPY
E EVALUATE RESPONSE TO MEDS
R RESPITE FOR CARETAKERS

mental retardation
R ROUTINE

R REPETITION
R REINFORCEMENT
R ROUTINE

SENILE DEMENTIA

J judgement

A affect
M memory

C cognition
O orientation

EYE MEDS

MIOTIC
LITTLE PUPIL THEY CONSTRICT

MYDRIATIC
BIG PUPIL THEY DILATE


ADRENAL GLAND HORMONES

S SUGAR =GLUCOCORTICOIDS
S SALT= MINERALCOTICOIDS
S SEX =ANDROGENS

NEUROVASCULAR ASSESSMENT

P PAIN
P PULSE
P PALLOR
P PARESTHESIA
P PARALYSIS


The main one every nurse should remember is one you already know:

A,B, C
Airway
Breathing
Circulation


lead placement: FOR EKG
White on the right, smoke (black) over fire (red)


Four causes of cell injury,

think of how the injury tipped (or TIPD) the scale of homeostasis:
T: Toxin or other lethal (cytotoxic) substance
I: Infection
P: Physical insult or injury
D: Deficit, or lack of water, oxygen, or nutrients.

CAUTION:
C: Change in bowel or bladder habits
A: A sore that doesn’t heal
U: Unusual bleeding or discharge
T: Thickening or lump
I: ingestion or difficulty swallowing
O: Obvious changes in a wart or mole
N: Nagging cough or hoarseness.


Use the ABCD rule to assess a mole’s
A: Asymmetry--Is the mole irregular in shape?
B: Border--Is the border irregular, notched, or poorly defined?
C: Color--Does the color vary (for example, between shades of brown, red, white, blue, or black)?
D: Diameter--Is the diameter more than 6 mm?


BEEP to remember the signs of minor Bleeding:

B: Bleeding gums
E: Ecchymoses (bruises)
E: Epistaxis (nosebleed)
P: Petechiae (tiny purplish spots)


CATS" of "HYPOCALCEMIA"
C - Convulsions
A- Arrhythmias
T - Tetany
S - Spasms and stridor



APE TO MAN
Atrial, Pulmonic, Erb's point, Tricuspid, Matrial

PERRLA means your eyes condition

Pupils Equally Round and Reactive to Light and Accomodation

MR DICE RUNS = our clinical teacher told this one

M= Muscle
R= Respiratory
D=Digestive
I= Integumentary
C= Circulatory
E= Endocrine
R= Reproductive
U= Urinary
N= Nervous
S= Skeletal


S/S of Hyponatremia


S tupor/coma
A norexia, N&V
L ethargy
T endon reflexes decreased

L imp muscles (weakness)
O rthostatic hypotension
S eizures/headache
S tomach cramping


R Respiratory
O Opposite

ph > PCO2 <>
ph <> Acidosis

M Metabolic
E Equal

ph> HCO3 > Alkalosis
ph<>

Nerves Functions
I Olfactory -Oh -Sensory -Some
II Optic- Oh -Sensory -Say
III Occulomotor -Oh -Motor -Mary
IV Trochlear -To -Motor -Money
V Trigeminal -Touch -Both -But
VI Abducens -And -Motor -My
VII Facial -Feel -Both -Brother
VIII Acoustic (vestoblochlear) -A -Sensory -Says
IX Glosopharyngeal -Green -Both -Bad
X Vagus -Veggie -Both -Business
XI Spinal Accessory- Soon At -Motor -Mary
XII Hypoglosal -Harvest- Motor -Money


Effects of anticholinergics:
Can't see
Can't pee
Can't spit
Can't --defecate

LDL =bad"cholesterol
L=Lowdown
D=Dirty
L=lipoprotein


Diabetes
Hot and Dry : sugar high
cold and clammy need some candy

DEMENTIA can be used to remember potential causes:
  • D: Drugs and alcohol—including over-the-counter drugs
  • E: Eyes and ears—disorientation due to visual/auditory distortion
  • M: Medical disorders—e.g., diabetes, hypothyroidism
  • E: Emotional and psychological disturbances—e.g., mood or paranoid disorders
  • N: Neurological disorders—e.g., multiinfarct dementia
  • T: Tumors and trauma
  • I: Infections—e.g., urinary tract or upper respiratory tract
  • A: Arteriosclerosis—leading to hf insufficient blood supply to heart and brain, and confusion

Blood:
Normal (Neutrophils)
Monkeys (Monocytes)
Like to (Lymphocytes)
Eat (Eosinophils)
Bananas (Basophils)




Bold






Bold

Wednesday, February 3, 2010

STUDYGUIDE OF GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

STUDYGUIDE OF GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

Chapter 9, 10, 11,12, 13 ( Rosedahl)

Vocabulary
  1. Binuclear family: a family in which a separation or divorce of the adult partners occur, but both adults continue to assume a high level of child rearing responsibilities.
  2. Cohabitation: unmarried individuals in a committed partnership living together, with or without children.
  3. Communal family : family where many people live together, strive to be self -sufficient, and minimize contact with the outside society.
  4. Commuter family: a family in which both adults are usually professionals, one of whom lives in another city because of the employment, and the partners must travel a long distance, usually on weekends to be together.
  5. Dual-career/dual worker family: nuclear family in which both parents work outside the home
  6. Dysfunctional family: family whose coping systems disintegrates as stressors built.
  7. Extended family: ones family beyond that of parents and siblings
  8. Family: 2 or more people who are joined together by bonds of sharing and emotional closeness and who identify themselves as being part of the family.
  9. Foster family : family in which children live with paid caregivers.
  10. Functional family: a family that uses it’s resource to cope and become stronger under stress.
  11. Gay or lesbian family : partners of the same sex who live or own property together, with or without children.
  12. Nuclear dyad: a married couple who live together without children
  13. Nuclear family: a 2 generation unit consisting of husband, wife, and their immediate children-biological , adopted, or both living within one household.
  14. Reconstituted family: a family that consists of couple who both have a custody od their children from previous relationships and any new children from this arrangement.
  15. Siblings: 2 or more people having at least one parent in common.
  16. Single-adult household : adults who live alone in their own apartments or house with no children.
  17. Single parent family: a family in which one adult is head of house hold with dependent children. The adult who is single may be single by choice or a s a result of separation, divorce or death.
  18. Bonding: the development of a close emotional tie, as between parent and a child.
  19. Cephalocaudal: head to toe-developmental progression in infants
  20. Cognitive: involving knowledge, understanding and perception in the mind.
  21. Development : change in body function
  22. Enuresis: involuntary urine discharge usually occurring during sleep: bedwetting.
  23. Environment: one’s surroundings the situation in which a person lives ( as opposite to heredity.
  24. Growth: change in body’s structure or size, formational of abnormal tissue such as a tumor.
  25. Hereditary: genetically determined transmission from a parent to child, inherited ( not acquired.
  26. Infancy: a child from 1 to 12 months of age.
  27. Interdependent: depending on one another; one’s actions occurs because of abother. Activities of various organ systems ( for example the nerves, muscle, and bones are interdependent)
  28. Masturbation’: handling one’s own genitals for erotic stimulation.
  29. Newborn: human being in first 4 weeks of life.
  30. Object permanence: the knowledge that an object seen in a particular spot but temporarily hidden from view continues to exist and will return to view.
  31. Parallel play : 2 children playing side by side with the same or similar toys, without interacting with each other ( common in toddlers)
  32. Proximodistal: from the center or core outward ( patterns of development and achievement of motor control of the infant)
  33. Regression: return to a former state, a s the child regresses when ill. Regression of a disease process refers to it’s relief or subsiding.
  34. Solitary play : children playing alone with their own toys in the same general area, but not next to each other and with no interaction.
  35. Stranger anxiety: condition seen in infants and children, in which unfamiliar people, places and events upset them.
  36. Toddler: a child from 1-3 years in age.
  37. Adolescence: time between puberty onset and cessation of physical growth.
  38. Menarche: establishment of menstruation, the first menses.
  39. Nocturnal emission: involuntary discharge of semen while sleeping.
  40. Peer group: contemporaries and friends, the group of people with whom one is associated.
  41. Preadolescence : early adolescence
  42. Puberty: period in life when a person becomes sexually able to reproduce.
  43. Generativity : passing on ad sharing skills and younger generations.
  44. Intimacy: establishing relationships with others.
  45. Isolation : separation from others or separation of people with Infectious disease .
  46. Midlife transition: sense that arises in the middle adulthood that others of the same age have achieved more and that one must contribute to society before it’s too late.
  47. Ageism: prejudice against people based on age
  48. Gerontology : study of aging
  49. Mortality : death or rate of death per certain # of population and personal realization that one will die.
  50. Reminiscence : remembering past joys and successes.

REVIEW QUESTION OF G & D

Regression - a child’s behavior may go backward to that of an earlier stage of development
Enuresis-bedwetting-most likely occurs in boys
Pee-ka-bo: child’s play or infant game
Age of toddler: 1-3 years
Maslow’s hierarchy needs: basic needs of all people as a progression from simple physical needs to more complex ones.
Erikson says each individual is a product of interactions among heredity, environment and culture.
Piaget says thta term cognitive-knowledge, understanding, perception. It’s a continuous progression.
Play-(5-10 min) attention span of most infants last about 5-10 minutes
Head to tail-cephalocaudal ( center t outside)
Children’s favorite word: NO
Growth and development occurs in an orderly manner or sequence
Bottle mouth- serious dental condition that results when infants are placed in bed with the bottle of breast milk.
Anticipatory guidance
Object permanence: knowledge than an object seen in a particular spot.
Separation anxiety when child
Sibling rivalry
Family members should try to minimize children’s exposure to threatening elements and images.

NCLEX REVIEW QUESTIONS FROM ROSDAHL

  1. What is the most important etiological factor in developing a dysfunctional family? Poor response to stressors.
  2. The establishment of a family, childbearing, and childrearing are parts of which stage of the family cycle? Expanding family
  3. During the separations stage of divorce, development tasks include which of the following ? Adapting to a new living arrangements
  4. Why it is most important for a nurse to understand various family forms? To provide informed care.
  5. Which of the following belong to a single adult household? A career oriented young adult.
  6. The nurse is caring for a client who has given birth. The nurse understands that both p[arents are working and not very stable financially. Which of the following would to e the most appropriate suggestion with regard to caring for the child? Work in different shifts.
  7. A client arrives at the healthcare facility recombined by her male partner. The nurse understands that 2 are unmarried individuals in a committed partnership. To what kind of family do they belong? cohabitation
  8. A nurse is caring for a client in his 80’s who is assisted by his grandchildren. Which of the flowing should the nurse suggest to help the client cope with a decline in his physical faculties? Provide adequate diet, ensure sufficient rest, have a good sense of humor.
  9. According to having Hurst, developmental tasks that must be accomplished by the toddler orr preschool child include: control of the process of elimination
  10. Concepts of G&D include : growth in an orderly sequence
  11. The leading cause of death in toddler hood is : motor vehicle accidents
  12. What are the 3 important theories that a nurse should identify for understanding , explaining and predicting behaviors in children : Erikson’s theory , piaget theory, having Hurst theory
  13. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a common fear faced by preschoolers : darkness
  14. What are the characteristics displayed by the infants during the preoperational phase: child investigates and explores the environment
  15. What kind of play do older school aged children indulge in? structured games with defined roles.
  16. What should a nurse communicate to parents about how they can offer anticipatory guidance in their child’s G & D? : recognize the child’s pace of learning abilities.
  17. What is the most important psychosocial challenge experienced by an infant? : trust in primary caregivers.
  18. A nurse is caring for an infant who has been diagnosed with nursing bottle mouth. The nurse knows that which of the following is the effect of nursing bottle mouth? Serious dental condition.
  19. What instructions should the nurse give to caregivers in order to handle toddler tantrums in the public ? remove the child from public views
  20. What instructions should the nurse gives in order to handle a toddler’s separation anxiety? : deal with the toddler firmly.
  21. What advice should the nurse offer to a caregiver whose preschooler is experiencing sibling rivalry: individual attention
  22. According to having Hurst, the primary task of adolescence is to : grow up
  23. Which of the following behaviors would the nurse expect to see during late adolescence? : dealing with everyday issues.
  24. Which strategy would be most effective when teaching adolescents about risk taking behaviors?: make the adolescent aware of the consequences of risk taking behaviors
  25. A client reveals to the nurse that she was involved in homosexual activities during her adolescence and that now she is interested in a male friends but is afraid to have an intimate relationship with him because of her sexual history. What should the nurse explain to the client to allay he fears? Homosexual activities at an experimental level do not affect heterosexuality later.
  26. While taking care of a teenager in the early adolescence stage, what behavior of the client should the nurse anticipate? Childish way of appearing, thinking and behaving.
  27. The mother of a teenager is worried because her son does not listen to her and makes his own decisions in almost all matters. What advice should the nurse give the client? : making independent decisions is a natural task of a adolescence.
  28. A nurse is assessing a group of clients between 15 and 16 years of age to prepare a survey report on development of adolescence. What relevant characteristics should the nurse include in her checklist. : show increased interest in opposite sex , form ideas about the future, take more responsibility for self care and personal cleanliness.
  29. The father of a 14 year old girl is worried because his daughter is very inactive and has no interest in school activities that could help her make educational and career choices on future. What should the nurse suggest to the client to solve the problem? : adult encouragement and guidance are needed for skill development.
  30. A teenage client, while being assessed for fever, reveals the nurse his confusion regarding sexuality. How can a nurse help sexually active adolescents from healthy sexual attitudes? By providing sex education.
  31. According to Erikson , a 30 year old adult faces which psychosocial developmental challenge? Intimacy versus isolation
  32. A 47 year old adult expresses concerns of not achieving lifelong goals. The client displays increased alcohol intake and depression. The client is experiencing: A midlife crisis
  33. Women in their 30s face specific decision related to : childbearing
  34. A 25 year old client has recently graduated wants to know what he should focus on this point of his life. Which of the following is the best choice for the client?: selecting an occupation
  35. A housewife in her 30’s complains of regular headache and tells the nurse that she is contemplating a divorce. How should the nurse react? Inform the client about the risk of financial instability after divorce.
  36. A middle aged client is contemplating retirement. What advice should the nurse give the client: develop interest of hobbies, look for part time work, enroll in university.
  37. A 25 year old client is wondering why people choose to get married. What should the nurse response include? Marriage provides a sense of protection, provide support during sad times, is required for prestige.
  38. The nurse is caring for a 53 year old client who is worried that he will not achieve all his professional goals before he dies. What are the consequences of an adult’s failure in resolving midlife crisis that the nurse should consider? Brooding, physical illness, chemical dependency
  39. Prejudice based on chronological age by labeling and discriminating against older adults is known as: ageism
  40. According to having Hurst, developmental task for the older adult include: adjusting to decreasing physical strength
  41. Changing demographics pose which of the following challenges for future healthcare practices: providing quality , cost effective services.
  42. An elderly client believes that developmental tasks related to social changes can be prevented if older adults continue to stay with their families. Based on the having Hurst theory, what should the nurse tell the client? : developmental tasks focus on necessary adjustments to physical change, they focus on the social changes associated with age, they focus on the acceptance of one’s own mortality.
  43. A client complains that her 60 year old father is no longer sticking to the day to day routine that he has been following for the past 2 decades. How can the nurse help the client, using levenson’s theory? : explain that her father is choosing modes of living more freely.
  44. A 55 year old client at an extended care facility asks the nurse for advice on maintaining independence at this stage. What are the psychosocial considerations of maintaining independence? Sustaining health, social, responsibilities, and financial stability.
  45. A client who has lost his spouse recently is very depressed and needs some consolation. How can the nurse help the client to overcome this condition? Talk To the client about the principles of beliefs and spirituality.
  46. A 60 year old client is not ready to accept the physician limitations associated with age. What should the nurse instruct the client to do according to Sheehy’s theory? : feel comfortable with life changes to attain dignity.

Care of surgical patient study guide

Care of surgical patient study guide

Chapters 57, 55, 58

NCLEX REVIEW QUESTIONS

  1. The nurse explains to the client that the most important reason for inserting an indwelling catheter is to: remove urine continuously from the bladder
  2. While performing a sterile procedure, part of the sterile field becomes wet. Which action should the nurse take? Set up a new sterile field.
  3. Prior to inserting a urinary catheter into the male client who is uncircumcised, which action should the nurse take? : retract the foreskin
  4. After teaching a client how to change a dressing, it is most important for the nurse to document which information? Client’s ability to perform sterile technique
  5. When cauterizing a male client, the nurse knows that the catheter is inserted into the bladder when: urine flows into the tubing
  6. A client has a painful pressure ulcer that looks like a 1-cm* 2-cm blister. The nurse should document this pressure ulcer and the physician would probably diagnose it as stage : 2
  7. A client with darkly pigmented skin has an area that appears persistently purple and feels warm and boggy. The physician would most likely diagnose this as a : stage 1 pressure ulcer
  8. Most surgical wounds heal by : primary intention
  9. The nurse recognizes that which factor in a client history is most significantly related to his or her formation of pressure ulcer? : restricted to bed
  10. Which of the following foods would the nurse recommend to promote wound healing? : meals and citrus fruits
  11. What is the most important goal of care of a client who is receiving sterile wound irrigation?: cleanse the wound
  12. A nurse is preparing to inject insulin into a diabetic patient. Which of the following teachings is appropriate for the process? : surgical asepsis
  13. A nurse is required to care for a newborn. Which of the following should be used to disinfect the nurses hands before she handles the baby? : Hexachlorophene
  14. A 35 year old female client is cauterized after a hysterectomy , and the urine flow seems undiminished after withdrawal of a normal quantity of urine. What immediate action the nurse take? : remove the catheter and inform the physician
  15. The inanimate objects in the blood collection room need to be cleaned. Which of the following should be used for the mechanical cleansing of inanimate objects? : antiseptic cleanser
  16. A nurse is preparing to assist the ehalthcare provider in performing a lumbar puncture, which is sterile procedure. The nurse has put on sterile gloves and sterile gown. Where on the surgical gown can the nurse safely place his gloves hands while waiting for the healthcare provider to be ready? : between the nipples and the waist
  17. In the operating room, the nurse touches the strings of the surgical gown worn by another nurse with the sterile gloves hand. What is the next step to be taken by the nurse? Discard the gloves and use a fresh pair
  18. A 30 year old male client is cauterized after major abdominal surgery. For which of the folowing reasons is th drainage bag placed in a position lower than that of the clients’s urinary bladder after catherization? : for proper drainage of urine
  19. A nurse is preparing to assist the surgeon in major operation. What are the guidelines taken into consideration to maintain sterility? : reaching over a sterile field should be avoided, unless sterile clothing is worn, the mask must be changes for a new sterile mask if it becomes wet, when the nurse is pouring a sterile solution, the inside of the bottle should not be touched.
  20. Given below are the fewer steps for removal of a retention catheter. Arrange the steps in the correct order. : adjust bed to the comfortable height, deflate the ballon by completely aspirating all the fluid, ask the client to inhale and exhale slowly and deply, gently and slowly pull the catheter out.
  21. A 30 year old client has received mutiple wounds on her arm and face in motor vehicle accident. The nurse uses betadine to clean the wounds. What term best describes this process? : disinfection

STUDYGUIDE OF MUSCULOSKELETAL DISORDERS

STUDYGUIDE OF
MUSCULOSKELETAL DISORDERS

  • NCLEX REVIEW QUESTIONS FROM ROSDAHL
  1. A client is diagnosed with an oblique fracture to the ulna. A cast is applied to the client’s arm to immobilize the fractured area. What assessment would indicate complications of pressure due to immobilization? : lack of distal pulsation in the affected arm.
  2. A nurse is caring for an elderly client who has undergone hip replacement surgery. What measures must the nurse employ when caring for the client. :Turn the client every ½ hours from the unaffected side to the back , support the client with pillows or sandbags and trichinae rolls , avoid elevating the head of the bed when the client is on her back.
  3. A young client is diagnosed with the dislocation of the hip joint after a motorcycle accident. The dislocation segment is repositioned and stabilized with traction. What measures must the nurse employ when caring for a client with traction? : Encourage the client to frequently position the ankles in a neutral position.
  4. An adult client who has undergone spinal fusion surgery is put in a body cast. The client complains of frequent abdominal pains and a bloated feeling. What considerations must the nurse employ when caring for a client in a body cast? :report the symptoms to the healthcare provider
  5. What type of traction would be used for a 2-year old client with a fracture of the femur? : Bryant’s traction
  6. Which of the following statements is true about a client with malignant bone tumor? : malignant bone tumors can lead to pathologic fractures.
  7. A young child with the cast on his fractured arm visits with the healthcare facility with complaints of pain that is unrelieved by medications and aggravated by passive stretching of the arm. The clients also exhibits signs and symptoms of swelling, tightness, and parenthesia of the affected extremity. What do these symptoms indicate?: compartment syndrome
  8. An adult female client diagnosed with scleroderma comes to the healthcare facility with complaints of joint pains. What consideration must the nurse employ when caring for a client with scleroderma? : instruct the client to avoid smoking and exposure to heat.
  9. What considerations must the nurse employ when caring for a client with ankylosing spondylitis ? Teach the client to refrain from lying on her side.
  10. A 45 year old client diagnosed with sciatica undergoes lumbar decompression surgery to relieve the pressure over the nerve. A thoracic - lumbar -sacral orthosis brace is applied to the client to support his back. What consideration must the nurse employ when caring for the client? : smooth all wrinkles over the skin before applying the brace
  11. Which of the folowing statements by the client with gout indicates that the cleint has understood patient teaching? : ‘’I need to limit drinking alcohol.’’
  12. Which of the following should be included in a preventive teaching plan of osteoporosis? : increased calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
  13. Which of the following findings in a client who has a hip replacement would require immediate nursing intervention? : legs are crossed
  14. Which of the following statements made by a client leads the nurse to realize that further teaching is necessary to salicylates? : I should expect small amounts of blood in my stools.
  15. A client with casted left arm complains of increased pain at the site. The client was last medicated 1 hour ago with Demerol 100 milligrams IM. The nurse notes that the fingers are swollen and pressing on the cast. The arm is elevated, and the client is unable to separate the fingers on the casted arm. The priority nursing action would be : call the physician and report findings
  • NCLEX REVIEW QUESTIONS FROM LINTON
  1. Chapter 41, 42, 43
  2. The joints between the bones of the skull are classified as : SYNARTHROSES
  3. Age related changes in a connective tissue include the following : loss of cartilage elasticity
  4. A patient who has gout calls the clinic to report having flank pain and blood in the urine. You should: recognize signs and symptoms of urinary stones, and notify the physician immediately.
  5. A continuous passive motion machine (CPM) has been ordered for a patient after a total joint replacement . The primary purpose of CPM machine is to :prevent scar tissue formation
  6. One week after total hi replacement surgery, a patient complains of sudden severe pain in the affected hip and inability to bear weight on that leg. You should suspect: prosthesis dislocation
  7. Common nursing diagnoses for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis( RA) include of the following: activity intolerance related to fatigue
  8. What is the recommended daily calcium intake for a patient who is postmenopausal and not taking hormone replacement therapy? : 1500 mg
  9. When probenecid (Benemid) is prescribed for a patient with gout, a patient teaching should include which of the following pieces of advice? : drink at least eight 8-ounce glasses of fluid each day to prevent urinary stones.
  10. Which statement should be included in the teaching plan for a patient with progressive systemic sclerosis ( PSS/scleroderma) : remain upright for 1-2 hours after meals.
  11. A disorder in which the eyes, mouth and vagina become dry because of the obstructed secretory ducts is: Sjogren’s syndrome
  12. A pt is brought to the ER with an injury to his arm that was incurred in a fall. A bone end protrudes from his forearm. The surrounding skin is bruised and swollen. Exposed muscle tissue is also swollen. The patient has normal sensation in his fingers. His injury is best described as: grade II complete open fracture
  13. During which stage of bone healing do the ends of the broken bone begins to knit: Stage IV
  14. A pt with the femoral fracture suddenly complains that he cannot catch the breath. His pulse is 106, respirations 30. You notice a measles- like rash on his neck and chest. You should suspect : fat embolism
  15. Methods used to stimulate bone growth include the following: electric stimulation
  16. A pt is being discharged with a plaster of Paris cast on her arm. Patient teaching should include the flowing: notify the physician if the fingers become discolored.
  17. Crutches are properly fitted when the : crutch pad is 3 to 4 fingers breaths from the axilla.
  18. The main advantage of surgery over traction for older patients with hip fracture is: surgery allows earlier mobilization, which results in fewer complications.
  19. The most common cause of Colles’ fracture is: using an outstretched hand to break a fall
  20. The diet for a patient with a serious fracture should include the following: increased protein and calcium to build new bone
  21. A grafting sound heard when fractured bone ends rub together is called: Crepitus
  22. The most common cause of lower extremity amputation is : vascular disease
  23. Smoking is contraindicated after replantation because nicotine: causes vasoconstriction
  24. In which situation when an open amputation be most likely: an accident victim with a crushing injury
  25. A patient complains that her amputated foot itches and feels hot? This represents which of the following? Phantom limb sensation
  26. In the early postoperative period, the greatest danger to the patient who had an amputation is : Hemorrhage
  27. A compression dressing or a cast is applied after amputation to : shape the residual limb
  28. Measures to prevent contractures in a residual limb after lower extremity amputation include the following: guide the patient thought active range of motion exercises.
  29. Patient teaching related to care of a residual limb and prosthesis should include which of the following statements? Clean, rinse, and dry the prosthetic socket every day.
  30. The best way to preserve an amputated body part for possible replantaion is to : seal the part in a plastic bag and put in ice water
  31. When you examine a patient’s replanted hand, it is slightly bluish, swollen, and warm. These findings indicate: venous congestion
  • NCLEX REVIEW QUESTIONS FROM DAVIS
  1. A 49 year old woman was admitted to a physical rehabilitation unit 2 weeks before surgery for a below-the-knee amputation on her right leg. She asks, why do I have to keep wrapping my stump? The nurses best response is : you will have to shrink and shape the residual limb to fit the prosthesis.
  2. After a below-the-knee amputation, a client states please tell me I’m not crazy because it still feels like my right foot is still there. The nurses best response is : you are experiencing phantom limb sensation which is normal.
  3. In caring for a residual limb after a below-the-knee amputation, the nurse knows that which of the following statements by the clients indicates a need for further teaching? I should: apply lotion or alcohol to the stump
  4. A 17 year old girl was injured in a car accident. She now has paraplegia secondary to a T11 spinal cord injury. The nurse identifies the four divisions of spinal column are: cervical, thoracic, lumbar sacral.
  5. The nurse assess for which of the following symptoms in a T11 spinal cord injury? Loss of movements in the upper extremities
  6. Your client is being discharged and has been instructed how to lift objects to avoid lower back strain. Which of the following statements made by the client is correct? I must: maintain alignment of the head, neck, and back while lifting.
  7. A 33 year old client recently had an inguinal hernia repair. The nurse modifies postoperative care from the given most general surgery clients as follows: the client should not cough.
  8. A 23 year old client received multiple superficial; injuries in a motorcycle accident. The nurse in the emergency room will: administer a tetanus injection as prescribed
  9. A 44 year old male client recently had a lumbosacral laminectomy to repair a herniated nucleus pulpous. The nurse would: log-roll the client when changing his position his position in bed.
  10. After a thyroidectomy, a client develops spasms of the hands and feet accompanied by muscle twitching. The nurse identifies these symptoms as sign of : Hypocalcaemia
  11. A client has sustained a head injury from a motor vehicle accident. The nurse would assess for which of the following early signs of increasing ICP ? : lethargy and changing levels of consciousness
  12. The nurse is planning a bowel program for a client with multiple sclerosis. This would include: a high fiber diet
  13. A client in traction for a fractured femur. Which of the following statements indicates understanding of the nurses instructions? : the weights must hang freely at all times.
  14. A 42 year old client returned from the operating room 2 hours ago after having a lumbar disentomb. The nurse would: turn the client every 2 hours by log rolling him.
  15. A 53 year old client is scheduled for an arteriogram to elevate a femoral-distal bypass in the right leg. In order to protect the kidneys from the effects of the iodine - based contrast medium to be used, the nurse should? : check for allergies to the contrast medium.
  16. When assessing cleints over 65 years old the nurse would correctly identify which of the flowing as the most chronic condition in older Americans: Arthritis
  17. The nurse teaching a group of older people about early signs of aging. Which of the following occur in the early stages of aging? : osteoarthritis changes in the cervical spine, difficulty staying up at night and working the next day, difficulty reading fine print without glasses.
  18. A 65-year old client has been taking several aspirins daily for her arthritis. It would be most important for the nurse to observe: GI hemorrhage, decreased neural function
  19. A 68 year old client has bilateral : incomplete question pg 544
  20. A 38 year old woman was hospitalized with a medical diagnosis of cholecystitis. The nurse would expect the history of her present illness include intolerance to which of the following nutrients? : FAT
  21. The preoperative teaching for prevention of postoperative complications includes leg exercises. The nurse teaches leg exercises preoperative to gallbladder surgery to help prevent: stasis and clot formation
  22. A 68 year old client had bilateral total knee replacement under general anesthesia. The surgical procedure lasted 4 hours. Preoperatively the client received instruction on deep -breathing exercises to increase lung ventilation and gas exchange postoperatively. The post surgical nurse observes correct technique when the client is able to : take a slow, deep breath through the nose, hold it, exhale, and cough deeply from the chest.
  23. On the morning of the second day after surgery, data collections reveals pains, tenderness, and swelling in the clients’ left calf. She has not taken the as-needed pain meds ordered for her since the previous day. The nurses next action should to be: immobilize her leg and have her maintain bed rest until the physician examines her leg.
  24. A 78 year old man has been admitted for total joint replacement of his fractures right hip. In conjenction with the hip surgery, the physican orders aspirin 325 mg every day.The nurse is aware that this medication is probably ordered for which of the folowing effects? Anticoagulant
  25. For effective traction, a 9year old boy must be maintained in appropriate position. The nurse is aware that his buttock must be: elevated and clear of the bed.
  26. A pt with gout is discharged from the hospital. Which of the following might best describe the dietary regimen on discharge from the hospital: potatoes, milk, increased fluids.
  27. A nursing diagnosis for a client with gout is alteration in comfort as a result of pain, related to the disease process. when talking about what the client can do to provide comfort and relieve pain, the client gives the following measures. Which one indicates a need for further teaching? Apply pressure to the affected joint as ordered
  28. When planning care for a client with gout, the nurse identifies the major goal of drug therapy in arthritis and related conditions as: reducing inflammation of joints
  29. In teaching a client about the care of leg brace, the nurse should emphasize : the need to inspect skin daily and to expect some minor irritations.
  30. A 28 year-old client was injured in a motorcycle accident. The right leg was amputated above the knee. The nurse explains that a temporary prosthesis will be fitted to the leg. The most important use for a temporary prosthesis immediately after surgery is that it: allows the client to stand with aid within a few days.
  31. A client is learning to use crutches for the first time when planning care for the client , which of the following is most important? Carefully assessing the clients’ activity level.
  32. To prepare for a client for crutch walking, it would be most important for the nurse to: Initiate muscle strengthening exercises for arms and shoulders.
  33. When a client receives a permanent prosthesis, the nurse should teach the client to : inspect the prosthesis daily for loose or worn parts.
  34. A 12 year old boy is in a leg cast for a fractures femur. The most important nursing intervention is to: palpate the pedal pulse.
  35. A 72 year old client is leaving rehabilitation still requires assistance with walking. The physician order her to relocate to a center that will permit daily assistance in walking. Concerned about leaving her husband , who is in poor health, she tells the nurse that she would rather give up walking than leave her husband. The nurses’ response is: I understand that staying with your husband is more important than walking.
  36. A mother has her 12 year old daughter in the arthritis clinic. The physician prescribes naproxen ( Naprosyn)-the first dose 500 mg, then 250 mg every 8 hours- for signs and complains of inflamed joints and pain. The mother asks how long it will take for the naproxen to be effective. Which of the following is the most accurate response by the nurse? Therapeutic effects may bit be noticed for 3-4 weeks.
  37. The nurse is applying an elastic bandage to the sprained ankle of a client in an outpatient clinic. The nurse leaves the toes exposed to : check for circulation and sensation of the extremity.
  38. When positioning a postoperative client who has had a total hip replacement, the nurse is careful to keep the operative leg: abducted
  39. The nurse is to apply an Ace bandage to sprained ankle. The nurse would wrap it beginning at the DISTAL aspect.
  40. A 9 year old child has a short leg cast for a fractures ankle. Instructions to the child and mother on discharge from the ER include: avoid lifting the cast with the finger tips.
  41. A 22 year old client just had a leg cast applied. Wich symptom would be of most concern to the nurse? Loss of sensation in the toes
  42. A 35 year old client is hospitalized with a fractures right femur. Which of the following blood pressures would be considered within the normal range for him: 124/80 mm Hg
  43. A 45 year old auto accident victim has fractures of both arms. The client is in bilateral ( both sides) casts from the shoulders to the hands. Appropriate sites to take the client’s pulse include: carotid or femoral
  44. When teaching healthcare to an older client with osteoporosis, the nurse would: instruct the client to eat foods rich in calcium and to increase physical activity.
  45. The best source of dietary calcium to recommend to a pregnant client is: MILK
  46. Medications used to treatment of rheumatoid arthritis include: anti-inflammatory agents
  47. A clients will be ambulatory on the first day after surgery. The primary benefits of early ambulation are: to facilitate the normal functioning of all body organs and systems, and reduce the danger of potential postoperative complications.
  48. A 44 year old paranoid client is admitted for corrective orthopedic surgery. He refuses oral medication saying that the nurse is trying ti poison him. The nurse would: given him the choice of taking it orally or IM.
  49. A 45 year old client had just had electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse would: reorient the client to time and place
  50. A 12 year old client needs a leg operation. Who should sign the consent form?: let the parents decide
  51. A 45 year old client is scheduled for knee surgery. Because he does not like the hospital food , his wife brings food from home. He is on the regular diet. The nurses best response is to: allow the client to eat the food.
  52. A 42 year old laminectomy client is discharged home. He tells the nurse that he still has pain and is going to see an acupuncturist when he gets home. What is the nurses best response? Be sure to tell your physician that you are seeing an acupuncturist, and to br sure to tell the acupuncturist that you have had a laminectomy.
  53. A 45 year old client on crutches is demonstrating her crutch walking for the nurse. The nurse knows that she is using the crutches correctly if: places her weight on the palms of her hands.
  54. A 33 year old client is recovering from an endoscopy before giving fluids, the most important assessment is determining : bowel sounds
  55. A 30 year old woman fractures her tibia and several metatarsal bones during a fall while she was jogging. A cast was applied extending from the knee to the toes. The nurse makes frequent observations of which of the following: color, temp, and sensation in the toes.
  56. Which of the following statements would indicate that the parent of a child with a newly applied cast needs further instructions? I should use my fingertips to handle the cast.
  57. An 80 year old was being discharged after a below the knee amputation. He told the nurse that his wife has AD. Which action should the nurse take: notify physician to obtain home health consult.
  58. An 87 year old client is scheduled for an above the knee amputation ( AKA). To best prepare the client for postoperative therapy the nurse would: teach crutch walking.
  59. A 79 year old client with osteoarthritis is scheduled to have an arthroplasty ( joint replacement) surgery to the right hip. The client has been active since retirement and is in good health. In the preoperative teaching, the nurse instructs the client that the physician will most likely begin ambulation on the third postoperative joint replacement is : prolonged inactivity in an older adult increases the chance of venous thrombosis.
  60. Preoperative instructions to arthroplasty clients include hip precautions measures. The nurse correctly instructs the client : do not bend to put on your shoes; use a long shoe horn.
  61. A 75 year old client is admitted with gangrene of the right leg. The physician discuss the need for an AKA of the extremity. The initial approach by the nurse flowing the discussion is: spend time with the client and allow him to verbalize feelings.
  62. During a home health visit, the nurse observes that a clients AKA wound was completely healed 1 month postoperative. The nurse most appropriate action by the nurse following the observation is: provide strengthening exercises to all limbs.

STUDY GUIDE OF MENTAL HEALTH

STUDY GUIDE OF MENTAL HEALTH

VOCABLURY
  1. Agnosia : inability to recognize objects or person via auditory, visual, sensory, or tactile sensations.
  2. akinesia :complete of partial loss of muscle control
  3. Aphagia : an abnormal neurologic or psychogenic condition that results in the loss of the ability to swallow.
  4. Aphasia : an abnormal neurologic condition in which a person is unable to express oneself through speech and writing.
  5. Apraxia : difficulty in carrying our purposeful movements
  6. Affect: emotional tone, feeling of the outward manifestations of subjective emeotions.
  7. Akathisia : constant motor activity inability to sit down and relax, twitching ( a common side effect of neuroleptic medications)
  8. Anxiety: apprehensive uneasines or dread ( may be marked by physiologic signs, such as sweating, tension, or increased pulse.)
  9. Assultive :threatening to hurt others or actually striking someone
  10. Athetoid : involuntary writings movement of fingers, toes, or extremities.
  11. After-care :continued follow-up and therapy after discharge, especially from chemical dependency treatment or psychiatric hospitalization.
  12. Agonist therapy : drug therapy that uses specific agents to occupy opioid receptors, blocking the ovoid effects.
  13. Alcohol hallucinations :vivid and terrifying auditory, visual, and tactile hallucinations a person may experience during alcohol withdrawal.
  14. Aversion therapy: a psychological treatment that uses adverse conditioning to prevent a person from repeating bad or destructive behaviors.
  15. Blackout :temporary loss of vision and consciousness due to lack blood supply to the brain and retina; sometimes refers to fainting.
  16. Benzodiazepine : class of common antiananxiety medication
  17. Bipolar disorder :severe disorder in which behavior alternates between over activity and depression.
  18. Balking :refusing to do something
  19. Cirrhosis : chronic inflammation and degeneration of an organ, especially cirrhosis of the liver.
  20. Codependent :
  21. Catastrophic reactions : display of agitation that a person with dementia may experience when confronted with a difficulty or overwhelming situation.
  22. Confabulation : unconsciously filling in memory gaps with made-up information, often seen in organic dementias and psychosis.
  23. Confusion : impairment of mental function that causes poor judgment, memory loss and disorientation.
  24. Catalepsy: abrupt attacks of muscular weakness and decreased strength.
  25. Catatonia : stupor and muscle rigidity common in schizophrenia
  26. Cog wheeling ( movement) : abnormal muscular rigor that manifests as jerky movements when the muscle is passively stretched; can be side effect of psychotropic medications.
  27. Compulsion : a repetitive behaviors or mental act that a person feels driven to perform, sometimes constantly.
  28. Cyclothymic: mild form of bipolar disorder ( characterized by less extreme periods of over activity and depression)
  29. Detoxification : process of removing a toxin ( e.g. alcohol ) or its effects.
  30. Dual diagnosis: 2 separate chronic conditions at the same time; has commonly come to mean mental illness, combined with chemical dependency.
  31. Decanoate : inject able long -lasting psychotropic medications
  32. Delusion : a false belief that cannot be corrected by reason
  33. Dyskinesia : involuntary, coordinated rhytmatic movements
  34. Dysthymia : depressive disorder; chronic clinical depression over a long period.
  35. Dystonia : difficulty in speaking
  36. Delirium : a mental disturbance, usually temporary , marked by wandering speech, delusions, excitement, and at times, hallucinations.
  37. Dementia : organic loss of intellectual function ; formerly referred to as organic brain syndrome or senility.
  38. Dysphagia : difficulty in swallowing.
  39. Enabler : a person who cover for and often unknowingly, assists another to continue chemical abuse and codependent.
  40. Echolalia : automatically repeating of what has been said.
  41. Echopraxia : involuntary imitation of the movements of other people.
  42. Entitlement :
  43. Euthymia : normal mood
  44. Factitious :physical or mental disorder that is artificial or made up. With no organic basis.
  45. Forensic : pertaining to legal matters
  46. Functitional disorder :type of mental illness that has no organic cause
  47. Grandiosity :
  48. Huffing : inhalation of volatile substances to provide intoxication and to alter consiousness.
  49. Hallucination : seeing, hearing , smelling , tasting or feeling something that has no objective stimulus.
  50. Hypersomnia : excessive sleep
  51. hyper vigilance : state of increased watchfulness
  52. Hypomania : hyperactive individual who has not reached the level of mania; usually does not require hospitalization.
  53. Intrusive : in psychiatry, a client who interrupts or constantly interferes with others or who invades their personal space.
  54. Liability : something one is requires to do, an obligation often financial ; being found guilty of inappropriate or illegal acts.
  55. Macropsia : objects appearing larger than normal
  56. Micropsia : objects appearing smaller than normal
  57. Malingering : faking illness to staying the hospital or otherwise receive desired attention
  58. Mania : disordered mental state of extreme excitement; extreme and exaggerated hyperactivity as a phase of bipolar disorder ;expansiveness; increased speed of speech and thoughts ; grandiosity.
  59. Milieu therapy : therapy in a comfortable, therapeutic environment.
  60. Mutism : refusal or inability to speak.
  61. Neologism :new word created by an individual that is not actually a word.
  62. Neuroleptic : an agent that modifies psychotic behavior.
  63. Obsession :a recurrent, persistent intrusive thought or belief that the person cannot ignore.
  64. Oculogyric crisis : involuntary backward rolling of the eyes.
  65. Opisthotonos : a spasm in which the head and heels are close together and the body is bowed forward.
  66. Organic disorder : mental illness that is caused by an acute physical disorder.
  67. Organic brain syndrome :irreversible condition that affects cognitive function, now called dementia, formerly called senility.
  68. Polysubstance dependence : individual who is dependent on several drugs.
  69. Perseverate : to dwell on one subject
  70. Phobia : a persistent, abnormal fear or dread
  71. Polydipsia : excessive thirst
  72. Psychiatrist : a physician who specializes in the treatment of mental disorder.
  73. Psychometric : type of testing for mental disorders that includes an in-depth interview and various other tests; also called neuropsychiatry testing.
  74. Psychosis : a mental disturbance in which personality disintegrates and the person escapes into unreality ( more serious than neurosis)
  75. Psychotropic : types of medication that modify moods.
  76. Paranoia : mental disorder in which one has delusions of persecution or thinks others will harm him/her.
  77. pseudo dementia : a condition in which a person appears to have dementia but it actually suffering from depression.
  78. Rapport : a state of harmony or good relationships between two individuals, particularly emphasized in mental health.
  79. Regression :return to a former state , as a child regresses when ill. Regression of a disease process refers to its relief or subsiding.
  80. Refeeding syndrome : illness that results when a starving person receives carbohydrates too quickly, over stimulating insulin production and seriously upsetting electrolyte balance; can be fatal.
  81. Remission : a period in which symptoms of a disease or disorder lessen of abate.
  82. Respite care :care provided for long term or chronic clients so family members can have some time off or time away ( a respite)
  83. Substance abuse: a maladaptive pattern of substance use leading to clinically significant impairment to distress.
  84. Substance dependence :
  85. Senility L se dementia)
  86. Schizophrenia :psychological condition in which person loses contact with reality.
  87. Tardive dyskninesia: a condition that results from long-term use of neuroleptics. A common symptom is obvious mouth and tongue movements.
  88. Tolerance : ability to endure a substance’s continued use, such as of a medication or illegal drug; sometimes refers t increased dosage needed to achieve the desired effect.
  89. Tweaking : methamphetamine user who is sleep-depreived and in acute withdrawal. This person is very dangerous. ( tweaker)
  90. Vulnerable adult : an adult who is intellectually impaired, mentally ill, or otherwise unable to protect himself or herself.
  91. Wernicke -Korsakov syndrome :disorder caused by a chronic deficiency of thiamine, often related to malnutrition due to chemical dependence.
  92. Withdrawal : discontinue of use of a drug.

NCLEX PN QUESTIONS
  1. An older adult is admitted to the hospital. The client exhibits anxiety, severe sleep deprivation, and hallucinations. These data correlate most directly to: delirium
  2. What data findings are associated with the early stage of Alzheimer’s disease? Misplacing things.
  3. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate if you need to determine the client’s functional assessment? : to watch the client’s complete activities of daily living.
  4. A nurse is caring for a client with AD who needs assiatance with dressing. Which of the following measures should the nurse employ for this cleint?: provide clothing with Velcro and elastic waistbands.
  5. A nurse is assessing a client for progressive dementia. Which of the folowing should the nurse assess for in this client? Difficulty with functional skills, impaired arithmetic calculations, loss of language skills.
  6. A nurse is required to assess a client with dementia for signs of paranoid behavior. Which of the following demonstrates paranoia? Client accuses other of stealing her belongings.
  7. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who is agitated and refuses to take directions. What measures should the nurse employ in this client? Go away briefly and come back later.
  8. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who needs assistance with daily care. What measures should the nurse employ? Give pain meds before bathing the client.
  9. A nurse is caring for a client with wernicke worse-off syndrome. The nurse might find it difficult to care for the client for which of the following reasons? Belligerent behavior patterns.
  10. A nurse is assisting the physician in assessing a client for dementia. which of the following is part of the assessment during psychometric testing? Determining judgment and planning abilities.
  11. A nurse si employed at a long term care facility caring for clients with dementia. Which of the following nursing diagnosis should be included on nursing care plans for these clients? Ineffective family coping
  12. The nurse is asked to test a client’s skin turgor. What should the nurse assess for by performing this test? Signs of dehydration.
  13. A nurse is caring for a paranoid client with dementia. The nurse should remove which of the following items from the client’s environment? Mirrors, intercoms, lamps.
  14. A clienmt is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of major depression. When talking his or her history, which of the following would be most significant? Thoughts of self esteem
  15. When evaluating the effectiveness of neuroleptic medications, then nurse would monitor for: decreased hallucinations
  16. Prior to the administration of electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse would instruct the client that common side effects of the therapy include: myalgia and headache
  17. The healthcare provider informs the nurse that a client is extremely agoraphobic. The client is fearful of which of the following?: Open spaces
  18. A 31 year old client is hospitalized and kept under observation for several behavioral changes. the physician confirms the diagnoses of obsessive-compulsive disorder and starts the client on bastioned (buspar). What side effects should the nurse watch for in clients receiving buspar? :headache
  19. The healthcare provider prescribes monamine oxidase inhibitors ( MAOI) to a cleint to treat major depression. The nurse is asked to provide cleint teaching regarding the medication. What instructions should the nurse give to this cleint? : tell the cleint not to take over the counter ( OTC) drugs containing symphatomimetic amines.
  20. Aclient accused of serious crime is admitted to the healthcare facility for an extended period. The client is reported to exhibit aggressive behavior and had twice escaped from the facility. Which of the following steps would the nurse employ to prevent the client from escaping? Use-sally-port doors.
  21. A physiatrist nurse is caring for a client with severe psychosis who is being treated with neuroleptics. The nurse is instructed to administer ant cholinergic medications to the client. The client should take this medication for which of the flowing reasons? To prevent the side effects of neuroleptics
  22. A nurse is caring for a client with a mental disorder who was diagnosed with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) soon after the first administration of neuroleptic medication. Which of the following is considered the most frequent cause of death from NMS. :Respiratory failure
  23. A nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following negative symptoms should the nurse expect to find in this client?: withdrawal
  24. A nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to the healthcare facility with severe bipolar disorder. Which of the following measures should the nurse employ when assisting client to fall asleep? : encourage use of relaxation tapes, provide a snack before bedtime, administer sleeping pills as needed ( PRN)
  25. A nurse is caring for mentally ill clients in the psychiatric unit. In what capacity should the nurse act to support mentally disordered clients? : socializing agents, support person, counselor.
  26. A mentally disordered client is receiving therapeutic recreation as a part of his psychotherapy regimen. What is the role of a recreation therapists? To encourage the client to engage in games, to take clients on outings, to assist clients in cooking a meal or desert.
  27. A client presents in the ER department with a suspected drug overdose. It is most important for the nurse to: monitor respirations
  28. A client is admitted to the hospital with alcohol withdrawal orders. Which of the folowing medications will the nurse expect to administer during the acute phase to reduce tremors, prevent seizures, and provides sedation? Diazepam ( Valium)
  29. Which of the following statements by a client indicates use of rationalization as a defense mechanism? I can quit whenever I want
  30. Which % of general medical-surgical clients has underlying substance abuse problems? 45%
  31. Which of the folowing indicates that a client is experiencing delirium tremens?: hallucinations
  32. A client is admitted in the morning for same-day surgery. Which of the folowing might be postoperative indicates that the client is undergoing withdrawal from an abused substance? Severe pain, no relief from PRN medication
  33. During the data gathering process, a 30 year old methamphetamine abuser complains to the nurse that he has the sensation of insects and snakes crawling on the skin. Which of the folowing terms should the nurse use to document the condition? :pormications
  34. A client has been prescribed ant abuse therapy for chronic alcohol abuse. Which of the following is true regarding ant abuse therapy? Cough syrups should be avoided during ant abuse therapy.
  35. A nurse is caring for a client with Wernicke-worse-off syndrome. Which deficiency should the nurse monitor this client for? Vitamin B
  36. A nurse is caring for a client with unmanaged alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following symptoms indicates that the client condition is life threatening? Delirium tremors
  37. A nurse is teaching an elderly cleint about the adverse effects of over-the counter (OTC) drug abuse. Which of the folowing drugs can be cited as an example of an OTC drug? Caffeine ( Vivarian)
  38. A nurse is required to care for a cocaine abuser who is in the detoxification process. Which of the folowing withdrawal symptoms should the nurse monitor in the client? Dilated pupils, unreasonable fear and panic, sleep disturbance
  39. A 30 year old client with suspected chronic alcohol abuse is brought to he detoxification center. Which if the flowing symptoms should the nurse monitor to identify the abuse? Palmar erythema, spider angioma,dementia
  40. A nurse is conducting a blood alcohol test for a motorist who is suspected of alcohol abuse. Which of the folowing statements are true regarding the rate of absorption of alcohol?: the absorption rate is faster in women than in men, ranitidine enhances the absorption of alcohol, the ratio of muscle of fat affects the rate of absorption.
  41. A 45 year old drug abuser who is in the detoxification process has developed refeeding syndrome. The excess and rapid introduction of which of the folowing substance is the actual cause of the syndrome? protein
  42. A nurse is required to care for an 40 year old cleint who is receiving acamprostate therapy. Which of the following is true regarding the use of acamprostate? the drug is used to reduce the craving for alcohol

Fundamentals review questions

NCLEX REVIEW QUESTIONS
  1. Florence nightingale opened the first school of nursing outside a hospital that stressed : learning
  2. Which of the following was the first practical nursing school in the United States? : Ballard school
  3. Which of the following trends are expected to influence nursing in the 21 st century? Higher client acuity.
  4. Which of the following is the function of a LPN/LVN ? : provide direct patient care
  5. Practical standards for the LPN?LVN include which of the following? Function with other healthcare team members in promoting health.
  6. Which national organization strives to achieve accreditation of nursing programs for LPN/LVN? : NLN
  7. Current trends in the delivery of healthcare include which of the following? : preventing disease by educating and screening.
  8. Persons who are on Medicare : pay monthly premiums
  9. The goal of health maintenance organizations is to: avoid health problems by prevention
  10. What standards of care is the vocational nursing student held when providing care normally performed by a licensed vocational nurse? : the student is held to the same satndard as the LVN
  11. Which of the following is the nurse’s responsibility in obtaining informed consent? :confirm that the signs consent is the chart prior to the procedure.
  12. Safeguards for the nurse and student nurse against litigations include: follow accepted procedures
  13. Chapter 5 repeated
  14. The nurse understands that the probable effect of a client ‘s choosing to continue to smoke cigarettes will be : increased risk of heart disease and heart attack
  15. Today’s healthcare system emphasize: disease prevention.
  16. Health promotion and disease prevention measures include which of the following: helping clients with DM to manage their weight and follow dietary guidelines
  17. Which agency should the nurse notify regarding a client with infected rat bites who reports that the entire apartment complex is infected with rats? department of agriculture
  18. The community health center in your area has hired you to assist with projects during the summer. You should except that your duties might include : working with clients in group homes for the mentally ill or mentally retarded, day-care centers, or in school settings.
  19. Encouraging families to obtain and use a radon testing kit would help prevent disease related to: land pollution
  20. A client has been diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client states. Why has this happened to me? The client is in which stage of grieving? : anger
  21. What action would be most appropriate to support the spiritual concerns of a terminally ill client who has not practiced a formal religion?: encourage the client to gain strength from caring relationships
  22. When a client is grieving , which of the following is a correct statements? : the client may move back and forth from one stage to another.
  23. Which part of the nursing process includes the statement of the clients’ actual or potential problems.: nursing diagnosis
  24. Which of the folowing is a charcterstics of the nursing process? the client is a central focus of process
  25. Implementations of nursing process involves: giving actual nursing care
  26. Which skill does the nurse use to determine the meaning of multiple cues when assessing the clients? : critical thinking
  27. The primary reason for nurses to use nursing care plan is to : ensure consistency of care among all nursing staff.
  28. Which of the following is the example of objective data?: client’s respirations are 14/minute
  29. Which of the following is the example of subjective data? : clients complains of chest pain
  30. Which of the following is the example of client chief complaint? : I’m in the hospital for hip surgery
  31. A client is admitted to the hospital with complaints of chest pain during exercise. Which of the following questions would be the priority for the nurse to ask? : what if anything , helps to relieve your chest pain.
  32. After a nurse completes the nursing history and physical examination, what action is most appropriate? : data analysis
  33. In the nursing diagnosis, hyperthermia related to exposure to hot environment as evidenced by temperature 101 F, skin flushed and warm to touch, what part represents the problem: hyperthermia
  34. In the nursing diagnosis, chronic pain related to chronic physical disability as evidenced by patient statement of pain usually a 6 out of 10 on the pain scale, restlessness, facial grimacing with movements,’’ which part represents the etiology? chronic physical disability
  35. Which of the following is a correctly written goal? : client will discuss feelings about illness
  36. Which of the following nursing diagnostic categories has the highest priority? : ineffective airway clearance
  37. When writing care plans, the nurse should develop a plan for the client that is :individualized
  38. Which of the following is an independent nursing action? :provide a backrub for a client
  39. Which of the following is an dependent nursing action? : administering a routine medication
  40. Which type of skill is the nurse using when inserting a nasogastric tube? technical
  41. Which of the following best describes the use of evaluation in the nursing process? the nurse rewrites the nursing care plan because the client is unable to meet the goal of walking in the hallway for 50 feet twice a day.
  42. Choose which of the following statements that are correct regarding discharge planning.: discharge planning should begin during the initial nursing interview and assessment
  43. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention? : assisting the client to a full fowler’s position because the client is having difficulty breathing in a supine position.
  44. The nurse has recorded nursing care in the wrong client’s chart. What action should the nurse takes: cross out the error with a single line and write error and his or her initials.
  45. Which of the following is a correct entry that can be made into a client’s chart? : client’s dressing is dry and intact.
  46. Which of the following is a correct method for documenting subjective data? Client states-I feel nauseated.
  47. On which form would the nurse document vital signs? :flow sheet
  48. On which form would the nurse document what a wound looked like during a dressing change procedure? Progress note
  49. A clients complains of feeling bloated after surgery. Physical examination reveals the abdomen is filled with gas. The nurse would document the findings as: distended abdomen
  50. Chapter 40 repeated chapter 41 repeated chapter 42
  51. Chapter 44 do it later
  52. Before a patient arrives on the nursing unit, the administrations department usually: has the client sign consent for treatment
  53. When a client arrives on the nursing unit, the student nurse or LPN would be responsible for: charting admission details
  54. Which of the following measures will help to prevent dehumanization? :handling procedures with respect and tact.
  55. When a client tells the nursing student that he/she is planning to leave a healthcare facility against medical advice, what actions should the student take? : have a client sign a release form.
  56. Nursing documentation at discharge should include a :nursing summary of client problems and resolutions
  57. When counting a client’s respirations, which action is appropriate? keep your fingertips on the client’s pulse.
  58. For a healthy adult. Which vital signs indicate an abnormal findings?: temperature: 38 C
  59. Which type of temp measurement is the easiest, fastest, and most comfortable for clients? : temporal artery
  60. Which of the following would have the least effect on the adult’s pulse?: time of day
  61. When documenting a client’s BP, the systolic pressure is recorded as the point at which : the first korotkoff’s sound appears
  62. Chpater 47 later
  63. To prevent injury, the Posey jacket safety device should not be used: on the bed
  64. Prior to moving an immobile client up in bed, how should the bed be positioned? : head of the bed in flat position
  65. Which of the following actions is correct when performing PROM exercises? : support all joint during exercises.
  66. A client is having difficulty breathing. Which position could be used to make breathing easier for the client? Fowler’s
  67. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in discharge teaching for a cleint who will be using crutches? Avoid going up stairs
  68. The nurse knows that a properly made bed for a client who is bedridden is important to prevent : skin breakdown
  69. The nurse makes a closed bed for a client who : will be arriving on the unit
  70. The nurse will know that a bed cradle is functioning properly if the :linens remain off the client’s body
  71. A coherent client complains of the side rails being in up position and has tried to crawl over the rails. The nurses best action would be: put the rails down on one side
  72. Routine remaking of cleint’s bed is usually done: after the client’s bath and morning care
  73. When teaching the client about oral hygiene, the nurse should include which of the following? : oral hygiene improves food’s taste
  74. Which of the following clients would need hourly oral hygiene? : an unresponsive client
  75. When providing eye care, which approach should the nurse take? : cleanse from the inner to the outer canthus
  76. The nurse is caring for a client with poor eyesight. Which action is appropriate when shaving the client? : assist the client with shaving
  77. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain prior to bathing a client? Client’s condition
  78. The nurse knows that a false-positive guaiac stool test may occur if the client eats: Beets
  79. When teaching a cleint about obtaining the 24 hour urine specimen, it is most important to instruyct the client to :notify the staff with each voiding so th urine may be collected
  80. When obtaining a urine specimen from a retention catheter, which technique should the nurse use to avoid contamination of the system?cleanse the aspiration port with a betadine swab
  81. Which method sgould the nurse use when collecting a stool specimen? : take a portion of feces from 3 different areas of stool specimen
  82. When obtaining a midstream urine specimen from a female client, which instructions would be most important for the nurse to tell the cleint? Wipe from front to back when cleansing the area.
  83. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include after application of the binder or bandage to a client’s extremity? Notify the nurse if extreme pain occurs
  84. When evaluating the effects of a bandage, the nurse should monitor: circulation of nerve function
  85. Prior to applying ant embolism stockings, which action by the nurse is most important? Ensure the client has been recumbent for at least 15 minutes before application.
  86. Elastic stockings should be removed every 8 hours to : examine the leg for redness, pitting edema, or skin discoloration
  87. A client complains of itching while a bandage is in place.: assess the are immediately
  88. When applying moist heat, which approach should the nurse use? :first, apply a protective layer of petroleum jelly
  89. Which technique should be used when performing an ultrasound treatment?: apply lubricating gel to the client’s skin.
  90. The physician orders a tub soak for a client for 30 minutes at 110F. Which action should the nurse take?: questions the order with the physician, due to the possibility of burning the client.
  91. Which of the following treatments would be most appropriate for a maternity client who has just delivered a baby and has an episiotomy? : sitz bath to the perineum
  92. To reduce fever, a tepid sponge bath would be done for atlest: 30 minutes
  93. Which of the following most likely indicates that pain interventions has been effective? : participation in activities
  94. Which of the following is the best subjective indicator that a client is experiencing pain? : the client states that pain is present
  95. A client is experiences chronic pain is at greatest risk for developing : depression
  96. Which of the following would be most appropriate independent interventions for a client experiencing pain? : offer to give the client a backrub
  97. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to administer to control severe pain? Morphine
  98. The pain threshold can be related to the: cultural expectations
  99. Which of the following would support the clients dignity during the dying process? : allow the client to complete activities
  100. When evaluating the effectiveness of atropic administered to the dying person, the nurse would assess for : reduced secretions
  101. Which of the following statements reflects the current treatments of dying clients with regard t pain control?: large doses may be needed to control pain
  102. Which of the following indicate that death is approaching? : extremities feel cooler to touch
  103. The daughter of a dying client expresses that she feels helpless and does not know what to do . Which of the following would not be appropriate nursing action? Shower her how to give her father a backrub